Arsenal’s prolonged quest for a new striker may veer away from Ivan Toney, leading them to consider other options, with RB Leipzig’s Benjamin Sesko emerging as a prime target.
The Gunners opted against splurging in January but are anticipated to make significant moves in the summer transfer window to bolster their striking department.
While Ivan Toney and Victor Osimhen have been touted as potential signings for Arsenal, there’s also speculation surrounding the departure of Eddie Nketiah.
Per a report from FootballTransfers, Arsenal have prioritized Benjamin Sesko as their top choice for the forward position.
The report suggests that Sesko has surpassed both Osimhen and Toney in Mikel Arteta’s preferences, primarily due to his versatility, which is seen as a valuable asset for the Gunners.
Arsenal’s interest in Sesko is not recent, as Chelsea is also reportedly keen on acquiring the talented 20-year-old Slovenian.
Previous reports have hinted at a potential transfer fee of around £55m for Sesko.
While Arsenal exhibited patience by refraining from signing a striker in January, their persistence could pay off with the likes of Kai Havertz and Leandro Trossard performing admirably.
Nonetheless, the need for a new forward remains pressing, and Benjamin Sesko emerges as a promising candidate.
With double-digit goal contributions in the German league this season at just 20 years old, Sesko is viewed as a significant prospect.
Hailed as an ‘incredible’ talent by his agent, Sesko could fulfill Arsenal’s long-awaited dream of securing a top-class striker.
It’s imperative for Edu, Arsenal’s technical director, to make the right decision.
However, on paper, Sesko appears to be a player capable of elevating Arsenal’s squad.
